Krugman has a
post on the effects of technological change on employment. Here is a very illustrative case of the limitations of mainstream marginalist (neoclassical) economics, which leads a reasonable and intelligent economist to all sorts of mistakes. He says:
"start with the notion of an aggregate production function, which relates economy-wide output to economy-wide inputs of capital and labor. Yes, that sort of aggregation does violence to the complexity of reality. So?"
Implicit here is the incorrect notion that the problem with the aggregate production function is over-simplification. Nope, that is a feature of all theories of course. The problem is far worse; it is that it leads to logical mistakes.* So, as we will see, none of Krugman's conclusions follow from his analysis, and that is kind of a problem. Lack of logical coherence and empirical evidence are after all the two main criteria of demarcation between scientific knowledge and the half-baked notions of ideologues.
His first point, which is based on the marginalist theory of distribution**, is that:
"in competitive economy ..., we would expect the labor force to achieve full employment by accepting whatever real wage is consistent with said full employment."
In other words, wage flexibility guarantees the full utilization of labor. A reduction in the real wage in the case of unemployment would lead to full employment (yes, he actually does not defend this in policy discussions, because he thinks that nominal wage rigidities preclude adjustment; mind you his real preocupation is that the rate of interest of equilibrium is negative, precluding adjustment in capital markets).
Of course this is nonsense. A reduction in real wages, and I'm not even talking about the effects of deflation on demand which were discussed by Keynes in the
chapter 19 of the
General Theory, may not lead to an increase in the demand for labor. First, it must be noted that if wages go down, since wages are part of the cost of production of produced means of production (i.e. capital), the price of the latter also goes down. There is
a priori no reason to say that firms will substitute labor for capital (on capital debates go
here; really Krugman should read this stuff).
Second, once the idea that the intensity of the use of a 'factor of production' is inversely related with its remuneration is abandoned (by the way there is no evidence for the notion that real wages are inversely related to employment utilization, in fact, if anything, the evidence points in the other direction, with real wages being slightly pro-cyclical), there is no reason to believe that real wages are connected to productivity (and again there is no evidence for that relation either, which means that when Krugman asks "what is that real wage?" and replies that it is "the marginal product of labor at that point," he is also incorrect). Yes real wages have stagnated, since the bargaining power of the working class has deteriorated, with productivity still growing since the 1970s.
So, what is the problem Mr. Krugman? That your conclusion, that the effects of technical change on employment are ambiguous, does not follow logically from your arguments. Ricardo's discussion of the effects of technical change on employment, in his famous chapter on machinery, is far more interesting and coherent than Krugman's (see the paper
here). Not just the idea of a natural rate has to be abandoned, but the essential principle of substitution, which allows for the natural rate, must be dropped too. Logical coherence and evidence require it.
* For a serious discussion of the limitations of the aggregate production function go this paper by Jesus Felipe and Franklin Fisher
here.
** The quote of Hicks classic presentation of the marginalist theory of wages leaves little doubt of where Krugman stands, if you had any.